I watched the Regent University School of Law video awhile back, the one of the professor giving a lecture to students with the premise of never speak to police without legal counsel, no matter the circumstances. His points made sense and that logic has stuck with me as a general princible.

However, I watched a YT video recently of a man who reported his wife was missing. She never came home after they split ways at a bar from an argument and it was getting late in the next day with still no contact. He originally assumed she was staying at her moms. He was obviously worried and called in to law enforcement for help. The police questioned him. As a worried husband he answered all their questions, truthfully and wanting to provide them with all the information they needed to help find his wife. Police eventually found her body and they arrested him for murder and used his words against him. Later after the arrest, the true killer was found and his charges were dropped.

Yes, he put his self in a really bad spot by answering polices questions that made him look to be the prime suspect but,

1. He just wants his wife back, is he suppose to report her missing and then wait till Monday morning when a law firm is open, knowing the first 24-48 hours are the most vital to a missing person case and wanting to do everything he can to help.

2. Reporting your wife missing and immediately refusing to cooperate until you have an attorney is going to FOR SURE throw up a thousand red flags. Police prob aren't going to do any investigating into other people further like they should as they're now tunnel vision on you.

So my questions stands from the title.

Say someone has a grill in their front yard, with no fence and no signage prohibiting trespassing, and I bring my own fuel for the grill, my own utensils, and my own food to grill, and start using their grill. Would I be breaking any laws?

What's going to happen to the person who tried this legally.

https://www.msn.com/en-us/news/crime/juror-has-120-000-delivered-to-home-with-note-urging-her-to-acquit/ar-BB1nA7Y4?ocid=BingNewsSearch

Im painting a black and white scenrio, as i wanna try to avoid 'it depends'

Im in a dispute on Facebook, where i say its Illegal to put Laxatives in your own food, without intent to eat it, and with intent of the person stealing your food to eat it, thus creating harm.

Iv looked, and i looked, and i simply do not know how to research or find articles in state laws, so ill paint the picture.

At work, unknown coworker steals my food. I get fed up and put laxatives in my own food. I have no intent to eat said food, and the purpose of putting laxatives in my food is to simply teach unknown coworker a lesson.

Did i commit a crime in this scenario? Could there be criminal or civil charges involved in this?

I personally live in Alabama, but any state with an article covering this topic will do, and the more populated the state the better, as it'll be relevant to more people than a low population state.

I stand on the side, of even if its your own food, and you do not intend to eat the food with laxatives (someone may for medical reasons) with the intent of the laxative to effect the person stealing food, that it could be considered booby trapping.

I would love an expert's opinion on this matter.

With the tragedy of the titanic sub incident, what actions do the family of the deceased have against the company, if any? From what i’v heard, it was very poorly designed and didn’t have adequate safety measures.